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Thursday, April 30, 2015

SBI PO recruitment for 2000 posts: Last date to apply May 2

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The last date for application for State Bank of India Probationary Officer (PO) vacancies is approaching soon. Total 2000 posts are available for the position of PO. The candidates who meet the eligibility criteria may send their application forms by May 2, 2015.
In order to avoid last minute hassle and possibility of disconnection/inability/failure, candidates must apply soon.
Know if you are eligibility : 
Educational qualification: The candidates should be graduates in any discipline from a recognised University or have any equivalent qualification recognised by the Central Government. The candidates who are still in the final year/semester of their graduation may also apply provisionally subject to the condition that, if called for the interview, they will  produce proof of having passed the graduation examination on or before September 1, 2015.
The candidates having an integrated dual degree (IDD) certificate should also ensure that the date of passing the IDD is on or before September 1.
Age limit: The candidates applying for the position must not be below 21 years and above 30 years as on April 1. 

How to apply:
 The candidates will be required to register themselves online through the official website of SBI - www.statebankofindia.com orwww.sbi.co.in.
After registration, the candidates are required to pay the requisite application fee of Rs 100 for candidates belonging to the SC/ST/PWD category (Intimation Charges only) and Rs 600 for candidates belonging to the  General and Others category (App. Fee including intimation charges) through the online mode by using debit card/ credit card/internet banking.
The candidates are advised to take a printout of their system-generated online application forms after submitting the application;
Selection procedure:
SBI will conduct the selection program in three phases given below:
Phase-I: Preliminary Examination
Phase-II: Main Examination
Phase - III: Group Discussion (20 marks) and Interview (30 marks)
Final Selection
The marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination (Phase-I) will not be added for the selection and only the marks obtained in the Main Examination (Phase-II) will be added to the marks obtained in the GD and Interview (Phase-III) for preparation of the final merit list.
Result
The candidates who qualify for the GD and Interview phase and the list of candidates finally selected will be made available on the official SBI website.
There are reserved seats for SC, ST and OBC candidates. For more details about fees and reserved seat you may visit the official website
Important dates:
On-line registration of application and fee payment will be only till May 2
Preliminary Examination will be conducted tentatively in June 2015 

Wednesday, April 29, 2015

NATIONAL PARKS IN INDIA (Selective)

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[1] Anshi National Park --------- Karnataka
[2] Bandipur National Park ----------- Karnataka
[3] Bannerghatta National Park --------- Karnataka
[4] Balphakram National Park ------- Meghalaya
[5] Bandhavgarh National Park --------- Madhya Pradesh
[6] Betla National Park --------- Jharkhand
[7] Bhitarkanika National Park ------- Odisha
[8] Blackbuck National Park, Velavadar -------- Gujarat
[9] Buxa Tiger Reserve -------- West Bengal
[10] Campbell Bay National Park --------- Andaman and Nicobar Islands
[11] Chandoli National Park --------- Maharashtra
[12] Dachigam National Park ------- Jammu and Kashmir
[13] Darrah National Park --------- Rajasthan
[14] Desert National Park -------- Rajasthan
[15] Dibru-Saikhowa National Park --------- Assam
[16] Dudhwa National Park --------- Uttar Pradesh
[17] Eravikulam National Park -------- Kerala
[18] Galathea National Park --------- Andaman and Nicobar Islands
[19] Gangotri National Park --------- Uttarakhand
[20] Gir Forest National Park --------- Gujarat
[21] Gorumara National Park -------- West Bengal
[22] Govind Pashu Vihar Wildlife Sanctuary ------ Uttarakhand
[23] Great Himalayan National Park ------- Himachal Pradesh,
[24] Gugamal National Park -------- Maharashtra
[25] Guindy National Park -------- Tamil Nadu
[26] Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park ---------- Tamil Nadu
[27] Hemis National Park --------- Jammu and Kashmir
[28] Harike Wetland ------- Punjab
[29] Hazaribagh National Park ------- Jharkhand
[30] Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park -------- Tamil Nadu
[31] Indravati National Park ------- Chhattisgarh
[32] Jaldapara National Park ------- West Bengal
[33] Jim Corbett National Park -------- Uttarakhand
[34] Kalesar National Park ------ Haryana
[35] Kanha National Park ------- Madhya Pradesh
[36] Kanger Ghati National Park -------- Chhattisgarh
[37] Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park -------- Telangana
[38] Kaziranga National Park ------ Assam
[39] Keibul Lamjao National Park ------ Manipur
[40] Keoladeo National Park --------- Rajasthan
[41] Khangchendzonga National Park ------- Sikkim
[42] Kishtwar National Park --------- Jammu and Kashmir
[43] Kudremukh National Park ------- Karnataka
[44] Madhav National Park ------- Madhya Pradesh
[45] Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park ------- Andaman and Nicobar Islands
[46] Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park ------- Telangana
[47] Manas National Park ------ Assam
[48] Mandla Plant Fossils National Park -------- Madhya Pradesh
[49] Marine National Park, Gulf of Kutch ------- Gujarat
[50] Mathikettan Shola National Park ------- Kerala

Tuesday, April 28, 2015

LIC Housing Recruitment 2015 Assistants Assistant Manager


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LIC Housing Recruitment 2015

LIC Housing Recruitment 2015 Notification has been published through the employment notice with the intent to fill up 293Office Assistants and Assistant Manageror Officer Scale I across LIC Housing Finance branches in various states in India. Those candidates who have appeared in the IBPS RRB’s CWE III open competitive examination can get go through the LIC Housing Finance Recruitment 2015advertisement and find out TWS (Total Weighted Scores) RRB’s CWE III cut off and make an online application for these IBPS Jobs from Life Insurance Corporation of India. One can visit the official website for more LIC Careers 2015 at lichousing.com,there are lot of LIC Openings 2015.
LIC Assistant Recruitment 2015
Life Insurance Corporation of Indiais the leading General Insurance Company in India, established in the year 1956. Recently LIC Housing Finance Recruitment 2015 advert has been circulated to hire able candidates as Office Assistants andOfficer Scale I or Assistant Manager Positions, to apply online for this LIC HFL Recruitment 2015 individuals must have appeared in IBPS RRB’s CWE III examination which has been conducted in 2014 and have secured above TWS cut off set for General Category. Candidates will have to appear in the interview provided if they have been invited by issuing call letter online at the official websitelichousing.com.Those who are in search for the latest Govt Jobs 2015 can avail this opportunity to get job.

LIC Housing Finance Recruitment 2015

The selection process for Office Assistants and Officer Scale I (Assistant Manager)LIC Careers 2015 will be by filtering candidates based on their performance in the TWS RRB’s CWE III Examination where after receiving applications they will shortlistcandidates up on Total Weighted Scores and send call letter for those candidates online at LIC HFL website lichousing.com. 50 Marks will be allotted to RRB CWE exam and 50 Marks for Interview based on their overall performance they will prepare Final Merit List. LIC Housing Assistant Result and Assistant Manager Result will be made available online after the whole process is over.
Organization:LIC Housing Finance Limited
Number of Vacancies:293 Posts
Designation:Assistants and Assistant Manager (Officer Scale I)
Details of LIC HFL Job Openings:
Assistant Manager – 93 Posts
Office Assistant (Multipurpose) – 200
Uttar Pradesh 18
Madhya Pradesh 12
Chhattisgarh 3
Uttarakhand 1
West Bengal 10
Assam 1
Bihar 3
Odisha 3
Jharkhand 1
Delhi 18
Haryana 6
Rajasthan 2
Punjab 1
Karnataka 20
Andhra Pradesh 15
Telangana 6
Tamil Nadu 30
Kerala 5
Maharashtra 36
Gujarat 5
Goa 4
AGE:Above 21 years and 28 years below
Education Qualification:Graduation from a recognized University or Institute
Application Fees: INR. 150/-
Pay Scale:
Assistant: INR. 7, 400/- to INR. 16, 965/-
Assistant Manager: INR. 17, 100/- to INR. 32, 080/-
Selection Process:
TWS RRBs-CWE-III cut-off for Office Assistant (Multipurpose), Officer Scale I and Personal Interview

Important Dates:

Online Application Starts from 18th April 2015
Last date for online application is 05th May 2015
Interview Date 25th May 2015
How to Apply Online for LIC Housing Recruitment 2015:
  • Candidates can log on to the official website at com
  • Find the link for LIC Housing Finance Recruitment 2015 Notification
  • Get Online Application Form
  • Fill the Application Online
  • Submit along with supporting documents
Here we are providing the details of latest govt jobs 2015, Employment News, Careers, Interview Venue, Interview date, Call Letter, Admit Card, IBPS Jobs, Merit List, Result, Shortlist, etc.., get more updates from egovtjobs.in

Important Indian History GK Questions & Ans.

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1. Who was the founder of Haryanka dynasty?
Answer: Bimbisara
2. Who was the last ruler of Nanda dynasty?
Answer: Dhana Nanda
3. Which Indian bird or animal was widely exported during the Sangam Age?
Answer: Peacock
4. Where was the central point or meeting point of Indo-Roman trade?
Answer: Alexandria
5. Which Sangam composition is known as ‘The Bible of Tamil Land’?
Answer: Tirukkural
6. Who were the richest and biggest land owning class during the Sangam Age?
Answer: Velas
7. Who wrote Shilappdikaram in Sangam Literature?
Answer: Elango Adigal
8. Indra Vihara was the monastery of which religion?
Answer: Buddhist
9. How many literary compositions were there in Sangam Literature?
Answer: Eight
10. What was called Iravu during the Sangam Age?
Answer: Extra demands or forced gift.
11. Udiyageral was a ruler of which dynasty?
Answer: Chera dynasty
12. The students of Sangam Age were called by which name?
Answer: Pillai
13. Which type of village was known as Mudur in Sangam Age?
Answer: Old village
14. Which particular site is believed to represent the meeting point of the three Sangam Kingdoms?
Answer: Madukkarai
15. What was the state emblem of Pandya rulers?
Answer: Fish
16. Who was the composer of ‘Manimekalai’?
Answer: Sitalai Sattanar
17. Where was the second Sangam Literature held?
Answer: At Kapatapuram or Alaiway
18. What were Mauryans called by Jainism and Buddhism?
Answer: Mayur
19. Who was the founder of Maurya Empire?
Answer: Chndragupta Maurya
20. What was the early name of Chanakya?
Answer: Vishnugupta

Monday, April 27, 2015

IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions

IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions

Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

3.  Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

5.  What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)

7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4′s and 6′s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

14.  Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

15.  Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

16.  If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17.  If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question

22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

25.  ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
Directions (questions 1 to 5):Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

3.  Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

5.  What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)

7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.

9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

14.  Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

15.  Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

16.  If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17.  If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.

21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ˜S in the question

22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

25.  ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
At the start of game, A and B between them had four times as much money as C while B & C together had three times as much as A. At the end, A & B between them had three times as much as C, while B & C together had twice as much as A. B finished Rs. 200 poorer at the end. A, B, C are the only players.
1. What fraction of the total money did C have at the beginning of the game ?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/8
(c) 2/9
(d) 1/5
2. What fraction of the total money did A win (or lose)?
(a) won 1/12
(b) lost 1/6
(c) lost 1/3
(d) won 1/5
3. What amount did B start with ?
(a) Rs. 575
(b) Rs. 375
(c) Rs. 825
(d) Rs. 275
4. What amount did C win (lose)?
(a) lost Rs. 50
(b) won Rs. 75
(c) lost Rs. 125
(d) won Rs. 175

5. How much money did A have at the end of the game?
(a) Rs. 375
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 325
(d) Rs. 1100

Saturday, April 18, 2015

IBPS Bank PO CWE Quantitative Aptitude Questions

IBPS Bank PO CWE Quantitative Aptitude Questions

1 A sum of money doubles itself in four years at compound interest in scheme 1. The same sum doubles itself in six years at simple interest in scheme 2. What is the ratio of the respective number of years required in scheme  1 and scheme 2 for a sum to become eight times itself ?
a) 2: 7 b) 2 : 3  c) 1 : 3  d) 1 : 4  e) none of  these Ans 2:7

2. Tap T1 can fill an empty tank in 9 hours. Two emptying taps , tap T2 and T3 can empty it in 18 hours and 27 hours respectively, if they are fitted at the bottom of the tank. But tap T2 is fitted at 1/3rd of the height of the tank and Tap T3 is fitted at 2/3rd of the height of the tank. In how much time will the tank be filled, if all the three taps are opened simultaneously when the tank is empty?
a) 27 hours b) 26 2/3 hours  c) 251/2 hours d) 24 hours e) none of these

Till the level reaches 1/3rd of the tank, neitherof the emptying taps will function.
So,the filling tap will take 9 x 1/3 = 3 hours to fill 1/3rd of the tank
From here till 2/3rd of the height is reached, tap T1 and tap T2 are  functional.
1/3 x 1(1/9-1/18)  = 6 hours
The last 1/3rd of the tank, all the three taps will function they will fill tank in
1/3 * (1/(1/9-1/18– 1/27) = 18 hours
           So, a total of ( 3+ 6 + 18) = 27 hours. Choice (1)

3 Two men starting from the same place walk at the rate of 5 kmph and 5.5 kmph respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5 km apart, if they walk in the same direction ?
a) 4 hrs 15 min b)8 hrs 30 min  c)17hrs e) none of these Ans 17 hrs

4 The calendar for the year 2005 is the same as for the year
a) 2010 b)2011  c) 2012 d)2013  e) none of these Ans 2012

5.A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3189 digits in all. How many pages does the book have ?
a) 1000 b)1074  c) 1075 d)1080  E) 1084 Ans 1074

6  In a garden, there are 10 columns and 12 rows of mango trees. The distance between the two trees is 2 metres and a distance of 1 metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The width of the garden is :
a) 20m b) 22m  c) 24m  d) 26m  e) 29m Ans 22 m

7In a certain railway network there are 25 railway stations. Earlier the tickets issued contained only the destination station’s name. Now the officials want to print tickets with both starting and destination station’s names on them. How many more kinds of tickets than in previous method are to be printed in the new method?
a. 50 b. 250 c. 575 d. 600 e) None of these Answer: Option (c)

8 A and B throw dice, one after the other, until one of them throws a 5 and the person who throws a 5 first wins the game. If A begins the game, then the probability that B wins the game is ..
a. 5/11 b. ½ c. 7/11 d. 6/11  e) None of these Answer: Option (a)


Friday, April 17, 2015

IBPS Bank PO CWE computer Awareness

IBPS Bank PO CWE computer Awareness

1. Which among the following is a device , that is used in computers to add external components?
(A)Storage Device such as USB
(B)Keyboard
(C)Ports / System Boards
(D)RAM
Answer ©

2. The term Round-trip delay time, used in telecommunication is replaced in computers with which among the following?
(A)Access time
(B)Response time
(C)Entrance time
(D)Ping Time
Answer(d)

3. The terms “push and pull services” in context with the Banking are used in which among the following generally?
(A)Rural Banking
(B)Unit Banking
(C)Online Banking
(D)Mobile Banking
Answer(d)
4. Consider the following in context with the CVV or Card security code of an ATM or Credit Card:
1.Magnetic Stripe
2.Front of the in embossed or printed digits
3.Back of the card as a separate group of 3 digits to the right of the signature strip
At which among the above locations CVV or Card Security Code of an ATM is found?
(A)1 & 2
(B)2 & 3
(C)1 & 3
Ans C

(D)1, 2 & 3 Answer
6. What do we call the process of collecting, organizing, storing and otherwise maintaining a complete historical record of programs and other documents used or prepared during the different phases of the system?
(A)Segmentation
(B)Documentation
(C)Data Management
(D)Data History
Answer(B)

7. Which among the following is an example of “Card not present transaction” in context with the Credit / Debit Cards?
(A)A person paying a restaurant bill by giving details of his credit card
(B)A person making an online purchase using his / her credit card
(C)A person making a purchase using mobile banking
(D)Both 2 & 3
Answer(d)

8. Consider the following:
1. Application software
2. Hardware
3. Operating systems
The PDF documents are dependent upon which among the above to display the text, fonts, graphics, and other information contained by them?
(A)Only 1
(B)1 & 2
(C)1, 2 & 3
(D)None of them
Answer(d)

9. As a person working in internet banking environment, why you should be aware of the “Dictionary attack”?
(A)It is used to inject worms or viruses in the system
(B)It is used to determine a password
(C)It is used to access customer’s account by determining other details
(D)It is used for stealing info from the Credit Card
Answer(b)

10. Consider the following:
1. Software
2. Hardware
3. Internet Programs
The terms Bug and Debugging are generally used in which among the above?
(A)1 & 2
(B)2 & 3
(C)1 & 3
(D)1, 2 & 3
Answer(D)
11. What is ISO 9362 is related to in context with Banking Technology?
(A)RTGS Transfers
(B)NEFT Transfers
(C)SWIFT Transfers
(D)All of them
Answer©
12. The Clearing House Interbank Payments System or CHIPS is a clearing system for large value transactions in which among the following countries / regions?
(A)United States
(B)United Kingdom
(C)Entire Europe
(D)Australia
Answer(A)

13. The terms Goodput , Throughput and Maximum throughput are most closely associated with which among the following in computers?
(A)Bit Rate
(B)Response Time
(C)Command Line Interface
(D)Random memory
Answer(A)

14. Which among the following is the time period during which a computer is malfunctioning or not operating correctly due to machine failures?
(A)Downtime
(B)Uptime
(C)Response time
(D)Runtime
Answer(A)
15. What would be the number of bytes, transferred at the rate of 1 Kilobit per second?
(A)100
(B)108
(C)125
(D)140
Answer©

16. Which public sector bank was the banking partner in Commonwealth Games 2010?
(a) Central Bank of India     
(b) State Bank of India 
(c) Bank of Baroda          
(d) None of these
Answer-(a)
17 A group of attribute/field in a database is known as a______.
a) Record -ans
b) File
c) Database
d) Entry
e) None

18 Which layer of OSI model, firstly make use of unit of data called “Packet”?
a) Datalink Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Network Layer-ans
d) Presentation Layer
e) None
19 Which layer of OSI model, firstly make use of unit of data called “Packet”?
a) Datalink Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Network Layer-ans
d) Presentation Layer
e) None
20 A computer programmer
a) can draw only flowchart
b) can enter data quickly
c) does all the thinking for a computer-ans
d) can operate all type of computer equipment
e) None

21 A Trojan horse is
a) An ad ware program
b) A virus disguised as a useful program.-ans
c) A program that blows up every time you use it
d) A spy ware which steal information over internet
e) None
22 A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
a) To confirm that data exists
b) To create a new data warehouse
c) To analyze data for expected relationships-ans
d) To explain some observed event or condition
e) None of the above

23 A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
a) To confirm that data exists
b) To create a new data warehouse
c) To analyze data for expected relationships
d) To explain some observed event or condition
e) None of the above-ans

24 The process of finding errors in software’s source code
a) Debugging -ans
b) Compiling
c) Testing
d) Running
e) None


25 The section of CPU which selects, interprets and sees to the execution of program
instructions?
a) ALU
b) Control Unit -ans
c) Register Unit
d) Processing Unit
e) None

Thursday, April 16, 2015

Banking Awareness – Model Solved Set

1. Which of the following is a foreign bank having branches in India?
a)         Yes Bank
b)         Kotak Mahindra
c)         ICICI Bank
d)        Standard Chartered Bank
e)         Syndicate Bank

2. The price of which of the following is decided by the member countries of OPEC?
a)         Crude oil
b)         Silver
c)         Gold
d)        Wheat
e)         All of these

3. Which of the following statement is true?
a)         Banks cannot accept demand and time deposits from public.
b)         Banks can accept only demand deposits from public.
c)         Banks can accept only time deposits from public.
d)        Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public.
e)         Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government.

4. Interest payable on savings bank accounts is …………
a)         not regulated by RBI
b)         regulated by State Governments
c)         regulated by Central Government
d)        regulated by RBI
e)         regulated by Finance minister

5. Which of the following is the correct statement?
a)         State bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
b)         A nationalized bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
c)         A cooperative bank is the sole authority bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
d)        RBI is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
e)         None of these.

6. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheque in respect of …………..
a)         Both Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
b)         Savings bank accounts and currency accounts
c)         Both Savings bank accounts and loan accounts
d)        Both Savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
e)         Both Currency accounts and fixed deposit accounts

7. Which of the following is correct statement?
a)         Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts
b)         Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
c)         The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
d)        No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
e)         Savings deposits are the same as current deposits

8. The usual deposit accounts of banks are …………
a)         Current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
b)         Current accounts, Post office savings bank accounts and term deposit
c)         Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
d)        Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
e)         Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

9. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are:
a)         repayable after an agreed period
b)         repayable on demand
c)         not repayable
d)        repayable after death of depositors
e)         repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank’s choice

10. Financial inclusion means provision of:
a)         financial services namely, payments, remittances, savings, loans and insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
b)         ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
c)         house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
d)        food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
e)         education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same

11. Which of the following is known as cross selling by Banks?
1.         Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder
2.         Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor
3.         Issuance of cash against cheque presented by a third party
a) Only (1)      b) Only (2)     c) Only (3)        d) Both (1) and (3)     e) All (1), (2) and (3)

12. Which of the following states became the first state in the country to launch RBI’s e-payment system for commercial tax payers?
a)         Andhra Pradesh       b) Kerala        c) Gujarat       d) Maharashtra         e) Karnataka

13. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called:
a)         payment of the cheque
b)         drawing of the cheque
c)         cancelling of the cheque
d)        dishonor of the cheque
e)         taking of the cheque

14. Mortgage is a:
a)         security on movable property for a loan given by a bank.
b)         security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
c)         concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
d)        facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
e)         security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank.

15. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Govt, of India to provide an identity to its all resident citizens and also in identifying people who are poorest, often the last to stand up to ask for their share in govt, schemes or lack identity?
a)         Public Provident Fund scheme
b)         Indira Gandhi Old Age Pension scheme
c)         Social Security Scheme for Gramin Dak Sevaks
d)        M. G National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
e)         Aadhaar Card scheme.

16. Which of the following types of accounts are known as ‘Demat Accounts’?
a)         Accounts which are Zero Balance Accounts
b)         Accounts which are opened to facilitate repayment of a loan taken from the bank. No other business can be conducted from there.
c)         Accounts in which shares of various companies are traded in electronic form
d)        Accounts which are operated through internet banking facility
e)         None of these

17. Upper limit prescribed for RTGS transaction is:
a) 1 lakh       b) 2 lakh         c) 5 lakh     d) 50 lakh       e) No upper limit is prescribed

18. Distribution of insurance products and insurance policies by banks as corporate agents is known as:
a)         General Insurance
b)         Non-life insurance
c)         Bancassurance
d)        Insurance banking
e)         Deposit insurance

19. In order to attract more foreign exchange the Govt. of India decided to allow foreign investment in LLP firms. What is full form of ‘LLP’ as used in this reference?
a)         Local Labour Promotion
b)         Low Labour Projects
c)         Limited Loan Partnership
d)        Longer Liability Partnership
e)         Limited Liability Partnership

20. NEFT means:
a)         National Electronic Funds Transfer system
b)         Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer System
c)         National Efficient Fund Transfer Solution
d)        Non Effective Fund Transfer System
e)         Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer system

21. Every year March 20 is celebrated as what day?
a)         World Sparrow Day
b)         International Women’s Day
c)         World Cuckoo Day
d)        International Child Day
e)         international

22. When the rate of inflation increases:
a)         purchasing power of money increases
b)         purchasing power of money decreases
c)         value of money increases
d)        purchasing power of money remains unaffected
e)         amount of money in circulation decreases

23. Interest on savings bank account is now calculated by banks on:
a)         minimum balance during the month
b)         minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month
c)         minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month
d)        maximum balance during the month
e)         daily product basis

24. A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as:
a)         investment banking
b)         core banking
c)         mobile banking
d)        national banking
e)         specialized banking

25. Which of the following is not considered a money market instrument?
a)         Treasury bills
b)         Repurchase Agreement
c)         Commercial Paper
d)        Certificate of Deposit
e)         Shares and bonds

26. With a view to facilitate payment of balance in the deposit account to the person named by the depositor without any hassles in the event of death of the account holder, the following facility was introduced for bank accounts in our country:
a)         Will            b) Registration       c) Nomination      d) Indemnity      e) Guarantee

27. Banks in our country normally publicise that additional interest rate is allowed on retail domestic term deposits of:
a) Minors                               b) Married women                                 c) Senior citizens
d) Govt. employees             e) Rural residents

28. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalized bank is ………….
a) RBI            b) NABARD                  c) LIC         d) Govt. of India        e) IBA

29. Which of the following is the main advantage of “ASBA” with the applicants for share allotment?
a)         ASBA applicant has got secured allotment of shares
b)         ASBA applicant has got certain preference in allotment of shares as compared to general applicants.
c)         ASBA applicant need not remit the fund for allotment of shares, he/she will do so after shares are allotted to him/her
d)        ASBA Applicants deposit/OD account is not debited, only the funds are blocked for the same and he/she continues to avail interest till the shares are allotted to him/her
e)         None of these.

30. Like telephone/Mobile number portability, the Ministry of Finance/RBI is now also considering to provide bank account number portability to bank customers. Which of the following would it mean?
a)         Any customer/account holder can withdraw cash from any other Bank through his/her own cheques drawn on other bank even without ATM.
b)         Any borrower can draw funds from his/her loan account from any other bank also
c)         The account number of any account holder will remain the same even if he/she is getting his/her account transferred to another bank also.
d)        Bank customers would have the facility of mobile Banks to withdraw cash nearby his/her place.
e)         None of these

31. NRE deposit is ………….
a)         Non Resident External deposit
b)         Non Resident Extra deposit
c)         Non Resident Exchange deposit
d)        Non Refundable External deposit
e)         Non Resident Extended deposit

32. What is offshore banking?
a)         It is a bank located in the sea (i.e., island)
b)         It is a bank located in SEZ
c)         It is a bank located in a neighbouring country.
d)        It is a bank located outside the country of residence of the depositor
e)         Offshore banking is basically dealing in foreign exchange

33. Which of the following is correct?
a)         Illiterates cannot open any account in a bank
b)         Illiterate women cannot open any account in a bank
c)         Illiterates can open savings bank accounts in a bank
d)        Advance can be granted to a minor.
e)         Advance can be granted to a minor if he is of sound mind

34. Non convertible debentures are:
a)         Debt instruments which acquire equity status at the issues’ option
b)         Debt instruments which acquire equity status at the investors’ option
c)         Debt instruments which acquire equity status with the permission of Registrar of Companies
d)        Debt instruments which acquire equity status on maturity
e)         Debt instruments which retain their debt character and cannot acquire equity status

35. “IRDA norms will boost online distribution” – was the news in some major newspapers. This means online distribution of which of the following will boost up?
a)         Bank products
b)         Insurance policies/products
c)         License to open new banks/branches of existing banks
d)        Licenses to operate 2G/3G spectrums
e)         Permits for export of iron ore

36. To prevent frauds of iron ore mortgage cases, under SARFAESI Act, 2002 one special thing has been created and made operative from 01-04-2011. Which one is that from the following?
a)         Special Registrar Office at Lucknow
b)         Special Central Arbitration Bureau at Lucknow
c)         Central SARFAESI Tribunals at 6 Centres
d)        Central Electronic Registry
e)         States Electronic Registries

37. SBI has merged which of the following two associate banks with itself?
a)         State Bank of Hyderabad and State Bank of Patiala
b)         State Bank of Hyderabad and State Bank of Travancore
c)         State Bank of Mysore and State Bank of Travancore
d)        State Bank of Indore and State Bank of Hyderabad
e)         State Bank of Indore and State Bank of Saurashtra

38. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of Debit Card?
a)         No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery
b)         No interest earning for banks
c)         Works like a normal withdrawal
d)        Can be used at ATM and POS
e)         45 days credit is given to the card holder

39. Banks issue a letter to beneficiary on behalf of its constituents like guarantee for making payment on their behalf on fulfillment of its arrangement known in banking context?
a)         Line of Credit
b)         Loan to Client
c)         Loan on Credit
d)        Loan against Credit
e)         Letter of Credit

40. When a Bank provides a loan for purchase of white goods, it is categorized as ……………
a)         Consumption loan
b)         White Goods loan
c)         Consumer Durable loan
d)        Working Capital
e)         Bridge Loan

 ANSWER KEY
1. d      2. a      3. c      4. d      5. e      6. b      7. a      8. d      9. a      10. a
11. d    12. e    13. d    14. b    15. e    16. c    17. e    18. c    19. e    20. a
21. a    22. b    23. e    24. b    25. e    26. c    27. c    28. d    29. d    30. c
31. a    32. d    33. c    34. e    35. b    36. d    37. e    38. e    39. e    40. c